To prove that d dx ⁢ ex = ex , start with

d y d x = y

So the search is for a function that is equal to it's derivative. Using a polynomial, a well known function, and starting with the simplest,

y=a0+a1⁢x

The derivative of is

dy dx =a1

Not particularly similar to the original function. Now try a higher order polynomial

y =a0 +a1⁢x +a2⁢x2

The derivative of is

dy dx =a1 +2⁢a2⁢x

This has some of the structure of the original function. Now for a higher order

y =a0 +a1⁢x +a2⁢x2 +a3⁢x3

The derivative of is

dy dx =a1 +2⁢a2⁢x +3⁢a3⁢x2

Here we have even more similarity to the orginal function and suggest taking a higher order.

y =a0 +a1⁢x +a2⁢x2 +a3⁢x3 +... +a(n-2)⁢x(n-2) +a(n-1)⁢x(n-1) +an⁢xn

the derivative of is

dy dx =a1 +2⁢a2⁢x +3⁢a3⁢x2 +4⁢a4⁢x3 +... +(n-2)⁢a(n-2)⁢x(n-3) +(n-1)⁢a(n-1)⁢x(n-2) +n⁢an⁢x(n-1)

y and it's derivative differ by only one term, so by comparing coefficients,

For the constant term, a1=a0

For the x term, 2⁢a2=a1. So, a2=a02

For the x2 term, 3⁢a3=a2. So, a3=a02⋅3

For the x3 term, 4⁢a4=a3. So, a4=a02⋅3⋅4

... and so on ...

For the x(n-1) term, n⁢an=a(n-1). So, an =a0n!

So the function can be rewritten,

y =a0 +a0⁢x + a0⁢ x2 2! + a0⁢ x3 3! + ... + a0⁢ x (n-2) (n-2)! + a0⁢ x(n-1) (n-1) ! + a0⁢ x n n ! =a0⁢( 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + ... + x (n-2) (n-2) ! + x (n-1) (n-1) ! + x n n ! )

So the proposed function has the above form. Plugging this into the differential equation to be solved,

d d x ⁢ ( a0⁢( 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + ... + x (n-2) (n-2) ! + x (n-1) (n-1) ! + x n n ! ) ) =a0⁢( 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + ... + x (n-2) (n-2) ! + x (n-1) (n-1) ! + x n n ! ) a0⁢ d d x ⁢ ( 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + ... + x (n-2) (n-2) ! + x (n-1) (n-1) ! + x n n ! ) =a0⁢( 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + ... + x (n-2) (n-2) ! + x (n-1) (n-1) ! + x n n ! ) d d x ⁢ ( 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + ... + x (n-2) (n-2) ! + x (n-1) (n-1) ! + x n n ! ) = 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + ... + x (n-2) (n-2) ! + x (n-1) (n-1) ! + x n n !

So, the function is of the form,

y=1+x+ x2 2! + x3 3! +...+ x(n-2) (n-2)! + x(n-1) (n-1)! + xn n!

Each derivative will be one term short of the original function. So the function becomes more true as n→∞. Therefore,

y =1 +x +x22! +x33! +x44! +...

Many will recognise this infinite series, but let's investigate this functions nature. This function has the value of one when x is zero. Taking ratios of equally spaced values of x in the function then a constant is found.

y(2) y(1) = 1+2 +222! +233! +... 1+1 +122! +133! +... = 2.718281828...

also

y(10) y(9) = 2.718281828...

All of these properties are of an exponential function and the base here is 2.718281828...=e. So

y = 1 +x +x22! +x33! +x44! +... = ex

and

d dx ⁢ ex = ex

As required.


a MaS Tutor Icon